As far as i know black people where here first due to slavery but i have seen a few people on here saying that Indians where here 1st. Which does not make any since at all! Can some1 clear this up for me -
This is not one for all you racist out there so don't reply cos i will report you
2006-12-09 11:43:00 · 2 answers · asked by deb_star_82 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Cultures & Groups ➔ Other - Cultures & Groups
There were blacks in Europe during Shakespear's time since he did write Othelo.
2006-12-09 11:51:58 · answer #1 · answered by gregory_dittman 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I beleive that Indians were in the UK first. Slavery did happen in the UK, but not nearly as to the exnet as the US. Indians came becuase India was coloized by the UK beofre Africa. Some came as servents. Some came to to trainded to go back to India to rule for the British. India was colonised before Africa. It was easier to go to than Afirca. They had to travkle by sea (the UK strong point). For them to go to Africa, they had to past forest, desert, and desises. They did nto have the technology.
None, some Africans were in the UK< but the large population did nto happen to later.
2006-12-09 11:53:37 · answer #2 · answered by quest 4 · 0⤊ 2⤋