Ummm I don't know I'm still in High School sorry.
2006-11-21 12:50:26
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answer #1
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answered by *(Jazzle)* 2
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Sounds like a science question from homework, anyway, it's all really a case of probablity. This can be solved through the use of a punnet square however. I can't really illustrate that however, so I'll try to explain.
Heterozygous means they have two different genes. I'm assuming B for the dominant Brown, and b for the recessive blue. The dominant, in a heterozygous pair, always dominate over the blue, so someone may be Brown eyes, but have Bb for thier genetic code. The Brown always overrides the recessive blue. To have blue eyes, one must have both b recessive genes.
Also, one must take the chances of male, or female, which is a 50%, The females always donates and X, while the male has a 50% chance of donation an X or a Y
The total combinations are
BBXX - 1/8 - Brown Eyes Female
BBXY - 1/8 - Brown Eyes Male
BbXX - 1/4 - Brown Eyes Female
BbXY - 1/4 - Brown Eyes Male
bbXX - 1/8 - Blue Eyes Female
bbXY - 1/8 - Blue Eyes Male
Blue Eyes - 1/4
Brown Eyes - 3/4
Brown Eyed Boy - 3/8
Brown Eyed Girl- 3/8
Blue Eyed Boy- 1/8
Blue Eyed Girl- 1/8
So to solve your problems...
A -The probability of a boy? 50%, that's a given
B - That is 1/4 multiplied by 1/4, or 1/16 chance
C- That is 1/8 multipled by 1/8, or 1/64
D - That's 3/8 times 3/8 times 3/8 times 3/8, or 3/8^4, or 81/4096
Hope that helps you out =D
2006-11-21 21:04:21
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answer #2
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answered by Caffeine 2
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The probability of having a blue-eyed child is 1/4
The probabilty of having a brown-eyed child is 3/4
2006-11-21 20:57:26
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answer #3
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answered by Cecilia 2
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assuming eye color is unrelated to gender (i.e. blue can occur in both X and Y chromosome):
a 1/2
b 1/16
c 1/16
d 1/8^4 = 1/4048
2006-11-21 20:49:40
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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a) .5
b) 1/16
c) 1/64
d) .019
2006-11-21 20:51:54
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answer #5
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answered by chode b 2
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(a) 50%
(b) 6.25%
(c) 1.5625%
(d) 1.978%
2006-11-21 20:52:24
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answer #6
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answered by people suck 6
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