2006-09-27 06:46:19 · 48 answers · asked by John M 1 in Family & Relationships ➔ Marriage & Divorce
If your ex received property while you were married, then I believe you are entitled. If your ex was named specifically in a will to receive $$ or anything else, then I don't think you'd get anything... consult an attorney to see what they say.
2006-09-27 06:50:54 · answer #1 · answered by E. Gads 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Part of it depends where you live. The laws vary from state to state. Such as Texas is a community property state but there are certain things that are not considered community property such as anything you had prior to the marriage, medical settlements, and oh yes....inheritance. So, unless you were specifically named in the will you have no legal claim and would not even if you were still married. Of course I have to add that laws were set up this way to protect the true heirs of an estate from leeches such as yourself.
2006-09-27 09:22:27 · answer #2 · answered by Airlantiss 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It depends on 1) were you separated at the time? 2) It depends on the state you live in. But mostly on 3) Do you have a heart at all?! This was HER mother! If her mother did not specifically name you in a will you get nothing! If you are asking this because your ex owes you money for bills or credit cards then you can take her to court to get what is owed to you. If you have kids together it should be invested in them.
2006-09-27 07:31:24 · answer #3 · answered by Jnine 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am not going to pass judgment on you as I'm sure your divorce and death of mother in law can't be all that much fun to be dealing with emotionally. I think it's a valid legal question. But the answer is no. You aren't entitled to anything other than to help your ex-wife grieve.
2006-09-27 06:52:30 · answer #4 · answered by Luis LU 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Depends upon the state you live in. If in a community property state, I would say yes to 50%, but I am not a lawyer. You should contact one, this should have been handled in the divorce decree.
2006-09-27 06:51:33 · answer #5 · answered by Alfonsio Ledbetter 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO! Because it wasn't YOUR mother who passed away. And frankly speaking, you're not entitled to any inheritance from an ex or a current spouse. Any inheritance will go to the children and not you, thank God for that.
2006-09-27 06:50:20 · answer #6 · answered by Equinox 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
if u are, that would be selfish... you were legally divorced on 3/3/06 but u were probally split beofre that and wasnt there for her when the mother passed anyways.
2006-09-27 06:51:23 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You're a pathetic, amoral jackass for even having the thought.
BTW: Too late. Divorce final. You had nearly a year to include it in your assets disclosure. Any judge would find whatever intricasies in the law that he/she could, to keep you from that money. Eat s hi t.
2006-09-27 06:48:48 · answer #8 · answered by georgia b 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
If you live in California: Inheritance is separate property. Meaning it only belongs to her as a gift from her mother. Sorry :(
2006-09-27 06:51:42 · answer #9 · answered by Cali Girl 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Only if you are named in the will, or if there was a devise to "and spouse" for a portion of the estate probated before the divorce.
2006-09-27 06:48:43 · answer #10 · answered by wizjp 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋