Where in the Bible is monogamy mandated?

Question

Certainly not in the "Old Testament" -- too many concubines and servants.

Answer 1

From the very first book of the Bible we learn that God is the Originator of marriage. (Gen. 2:22-24) Being a God of love, he purposed that marriage contribute to the happiness of both husband and wife as well as provide a stable arrangement for raising children. Marriage was to be a permanent union, as is evident from what Jesus Christ said to certain Pharisees who questioned him on the matter of divorce: “Did you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and his mother and will stick to his wife, and the two will be one flesh’? So that they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has yoked together let no man put apart.” (Matt. 19:4-6) Obviously, respect for this original standard could have prevented many of the emotional problems and hurts resulting from divorces and broken homes.

The fact that God tolerated polygamy and divorce for reasons other than marital unfaithfulness among the Israelites did not mean that he had abandoned his original standard for marriage. By the time the law was given through Moses, polygamy and divorce had become established practices. Knowing the inclinations of the Israelites, God wisely laid down such commands as would best deter abuses under the then-existing circumstances. Jesus Christ pointed this out when he said: “Moses, out of regard for your hardheartedness, made the concession to you of divorcing your wives, but such has not been the case from the beginning.”—Matt. 19:8.

Jesus Christ’s words indicated, however, that God’s original standard for marriage would apply to his Christian followers.

Answer 2

Be careful of falling into the trap of thinking that every point of faith and morals has to be explicitly attested in Scripture. That isn’t the case. It’s an advantage if one can show Scripture clearly supporting a position, but it isn’t required.

On the subject of polygamy, Scripture indicates that for a time God did tolerate this practice during the Old Testament. However, it was portrayed even then as a negative thing. When Scripture describes the domestic life of polygamists, it brings out consistently the negative effects of polygamy—jealousy, taunting, conflict, favoritism—as different wives and children struggle for position within the family. (Take for example the strife between the wives of Abraham, Jacob, or Elkana; see Gen. 21, 29–30, 1 Sam. 1).

The problems were so clearly recognized that, even if there was not then a flat-out prohibition on the practice, there had to be special legislation concerning polygamy. Thus a husband playing favorites among his wives was not allowed to deprive the children of his first wife their inheritance rights in favor of the children of a more recent wife (Deut. 21:15–16). Kings in particular were forbidden to multiply wives to themselves (Deut. 17:17). Unfortunately, this prohibition was often not followed.

As time progressed, the problems with polygamy became more and more obvious, and it stopped being practiced.

The clincher came in the time of Christ, when Jesus indicated that marriage was to be restored to the state God had intended in Genesis 2. Thus Jesus prohibits divorce (Mark 10:2–9) on the grounds that it was not provided for in God’s original plan. God made one man and one woman to be together. Polygamy is ruled out by the same logic. God’s plan was for Adam and Eve to be together, not for Adam to be married first to Eve and then later to Barbara, and certainly not for Adam to be married to Eve and Barbara at the same time.
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May Jesus Christ be praised!

Answer 3

It is in Genesis. And God saw that man was alone and it was not good because Adam was alone. So God made Adam a help mate. Her name was Eve not Steve. When Eve ate the forbidden fruit and listened to the asp then she convinced Adam to do like wise. Because of that, they were thrown out of the garden and God of Eden, God said (Because you have listened to the woman you will surely die. Woman you will bear children in pain and your longing will be for you husband. (Not many men or husbands.) A man and his wife will become one flesh and he will leave his parents and they will become one. First of all you are in the wrong religion. If you think of many wives, it would be Islam you want to follow because in their religion you can have 7 or more wives. But 1 main wife. the rest are just like men collecting cars or golfing. In Shree you can have as many as you can afford. The word mandate is never used in the Bible so be carefull how you twist your words.

Answer 4

Genesis 2:24 That is why a man will leave his father and his mother and he must stick to his wife and they must become one flesh.

Jesus said, Matthew 19:4-6 '"Did you not read that he who created them from the beginning made them male and female and said, 'For this reason a man will leave his father and his mother and will stick to his wife, and the two will be one flesh'? So that they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore, what God has yoked together, let no man put apart." (read verses 3-9)

1Corinthians 7:2 ...let each man have his own wife...

1Timothy 3:2 ...a husband of one wife...

Answer 5

The ten commandments. The concubines that the kings had was not according to God's standard and their lives showed for it.

Answer 6

Genesis 1:23-24. God doesn't condone polygamy. Yes, David and Solomon did have many wives, but it was wrong. But suffered problems because of too many wives. David with Bathsheba, but God took a bad situation and turned it around for good, but David still suffered for his murder and adultery. 2 Samuel 12-19, depict the consequences of David's sin with Bathsheba. Solomon stopped obeying God because he had wives who worshiped other gods. 1 Kings 11, depicts the results of Solomon's sin.

Answer 7

The old testament is old for a reason. For several things you have to refer to the new testament. If you read the NT i doubt you will find any positive references toward polygamy.

Answer 8

It is said that a man shall cleave unto his wife and NONE else. None is a contraction made into one word of the words NOT ONE. so NOT ONE ELSE. Only his wife. Note that it uses the singular form of the word wife not the plural wives. Meaning that a man should have one wife, and be completely faithful to her and her alone.
-Duo

Answer 9

It's on the statement "Thou shalt have one wife and thy sex life shalleth be over and neither fun nor laughter nor party time shal be."

Not sure where it is. Probably in Genesis just after Adam was demasculated to make Eve.

Answer 10

In the Book of Moron - sorry - Mormon. The book which supplements and explains the Bible but has never been found.