It seems quite odd that Shakespeare during the plague should be homebound and in his sense of isolation at not being able to act would write poetry about his love of another man. I can imagine him writing poetry as now his art is not being written for the masses to be put on stage and the venacular audience but as that highest art form of poetry. Still for he, who was a hetrosexual, to devote two thirds of the sonnets to his love of this male youth and a third to the other part of the love triangle, the physical love that they both had for the dark woman, seems quite odd. Does someone have a better understanding of this situation than I do?
2006-09-08
02:17:53
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4 answers
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asked by
Steven S
2
in
Books & Authors